[Advaita-l] [advaitin] rAma-krishna-shiva-durga etc. are not same in shAstric vyavahAra!!!

[Kaushik Chevendra]

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But the Panchadashi says:entered the superior bodies like that of Vishnu.
> How does one explain this?
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What is there to explain in this context? The chaitanyam is what is present
in all the devatas, humans etc.
The problem arises when we that due to this Vishnu becomes a jeeva.

The Upanishad did not say this. Should one say that Swami Vidyaranya does
> not know Vedanta?
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The inference being pulled here that Vishnu is a jeeva is quite contrary to
hundreds of statments made by madhushana Saraswati, sridhara swami,
narayana bhatta, abhinava vidyatirtha swami, chandrashekhara Bharathi and
finally our own bagavan shankaracharya.
Should we say they don't know vedanta?

Infact i had given numerous statments from gita bhasya, brahmasutra bhasya
etc as to why the implication being bought about is not tenable. For which
i haven't gita a response or an answer.

How do we do the samanvaya of the Upanishad passage and what the
> Panchadashi says?
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We must do it a way where it's not contradicting logic or shankara bhasya.
If not we can prefer to take the variant slokha which doesn't contain
"Vishnu".

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> regards
> subbu
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