[Advaita-l] Apaurusheyatva of Vedas.

श्रीमल्ललितालालितः lalitaalaalitah at gmail.com
Thu Sep 22 10:59:19 CDT 2011

*श्रीमल्ललितालालितः <http://www.lalitaalaalitah.com>
lalitAlAlitaH <http://about.me/lalitaalaalitah/bio>*

On Thu, Sep 22, 2011 at 16:08, Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com> wrote:

> But still to this dull wit,
> it is not clear how svataH pramANyata  would prove the vedas'
> aparusheyatva!!??

Your words clearly say that you were unable to grasp the meaning of thread
and so imagined a new theory to question.
No one of us ever said that veda-s are apauruSheya because they are
Where will it lead you ? Let us see....
As we said that every knowledge is svataH-pramANam, so every knowledge will
become apauruSheya.
But, that was never said.
We only said that every knowledge is svataH-pramANam and apauruSheyatvam of
veda-s is a mean to sustain/maintain/hold/ it.
So, your question is wrong.

Now, the query which was actually meant by meant :
How could we prove that veda-s are apauruSheya ?
See a anumANa-prayoga by mImAMsaka-s :
veda-s are apuruSheya, because they are coming from anAdi-paramparA and
their author is unknown.

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