[Advaita-l] definition of apauruSheyatvam ?
lalitaalaalitah at gmail.com
Sat Sep 10 00:32:50 CDT 2011
On Fri, Sep 9, 2011 at 19:07, Dr. Yadu Moharir <ymoharir at yahoo.com> wrote:
> Is this not similar to "Alla" giving the "Koran" to Mohammad? or God giving
> the text to Jesus?
If 'this' means apauruSheyatvam, then no.
If we accept veda-s said by Ishvara and transferred to us by guru-paramparA,
even then paramparA is accepted as starting from sR^iShTi and those of
others is not.
It is well known that koran had various readings and was not prepared in
lifetime of muhammad and other versions were destroyed to unite people. So,
it has a mixture of puruSha-prayatna with special motive. Hence, it's
prAmANyam is doubtable.
Same applies for bible mostly.
The case of veda-s is totally different. It started from sR^iShTi and is
preserved as it was at start with svara-s.
So, both cases are very different.
> As per advaita - " me & brahman (God) are the same".
> To me the trikaalaatiita knowledge given in the ancient text is the most
> important portion our ancestors wanted us to use for making our life more
> productive or livable.This nityatva needs to be classified as apauruShya.
What is trikAlAtIta knowledge ? brahma-GYAnam is definitely not. Because it
is a vR^itti.
How did your ancestors know about brahman ? By tapas. How did they know
anything about tapas ? How did they know that it will lead them to
brahma-GYAnam ? How could you say that their brahma-GYAnam is not an
illusion ? - For all this we are talking about apauruSheyatvam.
What do you mean by 'this nityatvam' ? nityatvam of knowldge ? It's not
possible. Because vR^ittis born and die.
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