Praveen R. Bhat bhatpraveen at gmail.com
Wed May 20 11:56:01 CDT 2009

Hari Om, Maheshji,

On Wed, May 20, 2009 at 7:11 PM, Mahesh Ursekar <mahesh.ursekar at gmail.com>wrote:

> I would like to put this question to you:
> If an action is done because of purva saMskAra, then we can identify a
> cause
> for it. However, if an action is done out of "free will" then, if my
> understaing of the word 'free' in 'free will' is correct, it would require
> that it be a causeless action. Because if it has a cause, it couldn't be
> free. How does one account for a causeless cause?

As you can see, my comment was in continuation of Vidyasankarji's wherein he
said that *free* be dropped from free will. So clearly the will to do
anything isn't free, in my perspective, ergo, it may have a cause. In
effect, what I'm saying is pUrva saMskAra resulted in the karma phala of
willingness to do a particular thing (in a particular way).

> B G Tilak attributes this to Brahman/Atman. I find it hard to agree with
> this since it implies Brahman/Atman has a desire for something.

I haven't read Tilak, so I wouldn't know if he meant the causeless cause as
Brahman directly or indirectly as in Brahman being the basis for everything.
Just a thought.

--Praveen R. Bhat
/* Through what should one know That owing to which all this is known!
[Br.Up. 4.5.15] */

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