[Advaita-l] Re: Questions on Isavasya
sankaran_aniruddhan at yahoo.com
Wed Aug 9 18:35:33 CDT 2006
> Simply because the transformation process resulting in
> vedo (vedas -> vedar -> vedo when followed by specific
> consonants or "a" ) does not involve the generation
> of "vedaH" at any stage. As I understand it (and
> as I am sure you know), a visarga is generated (r -> H)
> only when either a pause follows or a "khar" (kh, ph,
> ch, Th, th, c, T, t, k, p, S, sh, s).
As I have studied it, "-as" and "-aH" are interchangeable,
and either can be considered as the original root ending
(i.e. either ending is independent, not derived). For
example, "rAmah" and "rAmas" are identical, whereas "rAmo-"
or "rAmar-" are products of sandhi rules. I think some
people consider "rAmas" to be the original form, maybe
because of similar cognate forms in other Indo-European
languages (latin for example). However, in sam.skRtam,
either is ok.
Sruti smRti purANAnAm Alayam karuNAlayam
namAmi bhagavatpAda Sam.karam lokaSam.karam
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