[Advaita-l] Advaita Vedanta and Ignorance

[Krunal Makwana]

|| Namo Narayan ||

I understand that ignorance is the cause of this outward perception but 
saying this, if Atma and Paramatma is the same, and that Paramatma is all 
knowing, then how can Paramatma be ignorant of what is being percieved in 
the first place. There should never be any room for ignorance to arise in 
the first place.

Saying that we percieve due to ignorance, ignorance would then be the cause 
of this outward perception, then logically Paramatma is flawed with 
ignorance. Ignorance can only occur, if something is not known, and 
so...Paramatma if all knowing, is flawed and ignorant himself due for this 
perception to take place in the first place.

But then we can saying that the Jiva or Atma is wrapped up in Maya, but 
saying that then ignorance would have to be taken place from the highest 
being for the jiva's to be ignorant, having a knock-on effect from Paramatma 
to atma (who in Advaitin seem to be one). Because if the Atma is Paramatma, 
and again if Paramatma is all-knowing then the atma would be all-knowing 
respectively, but then to say that Atma is flawed and Paramatma isn't, that 
is a contradiction in Advaita. Hence how can ignorance be identified from 
it's foundation, because we can't say that Atma is ignorant, as Atma and 
Paramatma are the same thing, and we can't say Paramatma is all-knowing then 
ignorance would not arise in the first place.


Please do not condemn me as  this is just a point i am trying to make, i 
believe myself to be an Advaitin but this question has always haunted me. 
And also when debating with other fellow's of different philosophies (E.g. 
Madhvacharya, ISKCON etc) this subject always seem to crop up which i do not 
have an answer for. Please please please try and answer this and the 
previous prose i have written earlier as constructively as possible.

Waiting eagerly for your responce

Krunal Makwana
Hindu Youth UK

>From: bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com
>Reply-To: A discussion group for Advaita Vedanta 
<advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>
>To: A discussion group for Advaita Vedanta 
<advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>
>Subject: Re: [Advaita-l] Advaita Vedanta and Ignorance
>Date: Wed, 23 Mar 2005 10:45:31 +0530
>
>
>if Adi Sankaracharya's philosophy was flawless then why can't it
>describe how the cognition of this world started, one of the answers 
given
>by myself was that it is because of ignorance, but then the question is, 
if
>Brahman is pure and all knowing then how can ignorance even come into 
the
>equation. If Paramatma is pure then how can this world (or creation) be 
a
>part of ignorance, as only ignorance can arise from not knowing, saying
>this
>if Paramatma was all knowing ignorance would have no leg to stand on, or 
if
>ignorance is the cause then Brahma is flawed.
>
>praNAms
>Hare Krishna
>
>bhagavadpAda deals with this objection in gIta bhAshya (13th chapter??) 
&
>in  *AtmEti tUpa gacchanti grAhayanticha*....sUtra bhAshya.  & it is 
also
>important to distinguish between two different view points in advaita 
i.e.
>loukika (transactional) drushti & pAramArthika/shAstra 
(transcedental)
>drushti.  If we have already realized that we are secondless brahman 
then
>there is no avidya, it is only jIva bhAva which is wrongly identifying
>itself with corporeal plane rising this objection.  So, for the question 
to
>whom does this avidya/ignorance pertain?? the answer is avidya pertains 
to
>the person who is asking this question...
>
>Sri Jaldhar prabhuji will clarify this point in an elaborated 
way....just
>few thoughts from my side.
>
>Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
>bhaskar
>
>
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