[Advaita-l] How were Vedas seen by our great Seers

sidha at omkarananda-ashram.org sidha at omkarananda-ashram.org
Sun Jan 30 11:55:00 CST 2005

I'm Bhagavan Shri Adi Shankaracharyas follower to the greatest extent. But I
personally also disagree with a bit of his philosophy and I think every
follower has the right to disagree with his master. Even the author of the
Bhamati commentary Vachaspati Mishra (one of the greatest scholars in
Shankara's tradition) disagrees with him regarding some details, i.e. in
precise we are not blind followers, neither was Shankara a blind follower of
the scripture, then why should we be his? We have got out own Sarama (the
goddess of intuition, i.e. buddhi, intellect), which seeks the lost rays in
the dark cave (if said in Rig-vedic terms). Even when God comes in the form
of a Human, he possesses human qualities, and one among them is to ignore or
forget something, which can lead in to a wrong statement, and that can
happen to everybody. But it is not like this in the case of the Vedas,
because they are not Human utterances, but they are celestial songs, voices
heard out in the universe or inside the body when you close your ears, and
not Human voices.
The process of realizing them is clarified in this way, like when an
ignorant person hears music, he don't perceive the seven notes and 21
sub-notes individually, but with a great and a hard practice of music, ones
ears are so toned, that it starts to perceive them individually. In the same
way, if we sit out side in the nature or if we close our ears with your
hands, we just hear a "hotchpotch" of sounds, but when done great austerity
and a great practice and leading a pure life to the greatest extent, than a
seer starts to perceive those voices individually and starts to perceive the
letters. Formed in a book, it becomes the Vedas.
This fact is proved from the fact that the entire grammatical system of
Sanskrit, starting from the first Grammarian Indra to the last Patanjali,
has been formed after the Vedas and the meanings of the grammatical roots
are coined according to the word used in the Vedas. In fact, Sanskrit
grammar is nothing more than trying to preserve the meaning of the Vedas, in
a psychological system. And that makes the Sanskrit Grammar the greatest
grammar existing in this world. This would become evident from a Brahmana
(shatapatha-brahmana), "Indra (the Grammarian) was prayed by the Devas
(scholars) to manifest (i.e. to make a grammar of) the unmanifested (having
no grammar, as the word "vyaakarana" = the sanskrit term from Grammar means
manifestation) voice (i.e. the Vedas), he agreed and then he broke each word
in to two (i.e. a root and suffix, or dhatu and pratyaya).

Would any scholar like to comment on it?
Loving Regards, Siddhartha

More information about the Advaita-l mailing list