[Advaita-l] Fw: Re: vedAntins at the time of shankara

V Subrahmanian v.subrahmanian at gmail.com
Mon Sep 18 13:16:47 EDT 2017

On 18 Sep 2017 21:58, "Aditya Kumar via Advaita-l" <
advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:

  Just thought of clarifying what I am saying. Although Bhartrprapancha is
favouring jnana-karma samucchaya, it can be reconciled under the vyavahara
plane as described by Bhaskarji.

The above is simply impossible because Shankara shows the reason: the jnani
who has known that he is a non-doer, akarta, cannot indulge in karma with
the idea 'I am the doer.' On this count Shankara has rejected that
samucchayavada despite that the proponent accepts brahmatmaikya jnana. So
such a samucchaya cannot be accepted even in vyavahara.

Since you have not studied the bhashya under a traditional Acharya, these
things will always remain beyond your grasp. Stop accusing others.


So why didn't Shankara consider it as mere prakriya bedha? In Bhamati and
Vivarana too, Bhamati requires manas-shuddhi for aparoksha jnana which is
nothing but moksha. How is this prakriya bedha and not Bhartrprapancha's
    On Monday 18 September 2017, 8:27:05 PM IST, Aditya Kumar via Advaita-l
<advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:

  You have simply copy/pasted the portions irrelevant to the discussion
mixing it with the bitterness of your own mind. Bhartrprapancha is not
against 'jnana removes avidyanivritti' - your brand new requirement. The
point of disagreement is that Shankara says 'jnana alone' leads to moksha.
Your take home points are as incorrect as any of your statements.
While you have conveniently rejected any fundamental difference between V
and B as to how aparoksha jnana is generated, you seem to strongly believe
that it was a critical point in the very previous paragraph!
So the sub-commentators thought of saying things which meant nothing?
Ashrayatva is a mere technicality? Whatever that means! This difference is
solely for research purpose? really? why would anyone research something
pointless? A simple question - If Brahman is the ashraya of avidya, how
does avidya nivritti take place in a jiva?
    On Monday 18 September 2017, 7:16:18 PM IST, Praveen R. Bhat via
Advaita-l <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:

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