[Advaita-l] Raama and advaita - a mocker

Kalyan kalyan_kg at yahoo.com
Mon Apr 10 13:58:45 EDT 2017

Alright, read the question as being asked in the vyavahArika realm. Rama, being an incarnation of Vishnu, the Ishwara, did he leave his original upAdhi of sarvajnatva for the incarnation duration? I hope this question is sufficiently well posed for advaitins.


On Mon, 4/10/17, Vidyasankar Sundaresan <svidyasankar at gmail.com> wrote:

 Subject: Re: [Advaita-l] Raama and advaita - a mocker
 To: "Kalyan" <kalyan_kg at yahoo.com>
 Cc: "A discussion group for Advaita Vedanta" <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>
 Date: Monday, April 10, 2017, 3:16 PM
 not unnecessarily complicating the issue. Your question,
 restated below, presupposes that ignorance is something that
 you "really suffer" from and that the said
 ignorance is "genuine."
 I'm saying that when you want an
 answer about the Ramayana from Advaita Acharyas (as opposed
 to general people who have an affinity to advaita), your
 questions should not be ill-posed.
 Suppose I say, "no, Rama was
 only acting out his role as a man in that avatara, so he did
 not really suffer from ignorance." That will leave room
 for the possibility that other men really suffer from
 ignorance. However, it is not as if another jIva, whom we do
 not consider an avatara-purusha, "really suffers"
 from ignorance. Obviously however, when we say that even
 bandha-moksha vyavahAra operates only in the mithyA realm,
 that special exemption of Rama from ignorance will be an
 imperfect, if not an incorrect answer, coming from an

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