[Advaita-l] Shruti prAmANya and jnAna
svedagarbha at gmail.com
Thu Oct 6 15:49:59 CDT 2016
On Thu, Oct 6, 2016 at 12:43 PM, Venkatraghavan S via Advaita-l <
advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:
> The implication for the validity of Veda, based on this interpretation of
> svatah prAmANya is that, one need not prove that the Veda was created from
> a group of causal factors that were specially conducive to the Veda's
> validity (the omniscience of the person who created it). Rather, one only
> needs to be sure that it has not originated from a defective source - we
> know that the Veda did not arise from a defective source, because it has no
> source at all - hence we can be confident that the Veda is true.
On this, a pUrvapaxin (to PM) would ask;
1. How do you know vEdas have no sources?
2. Given that we do not see any texts without author and we always see a
text has known author or forgotten author, so also vEdas must have "some
author(s)" even though we might not know who they are.
What is your reply?
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