[Advaita-l] Why was the illusory universe generated at the first place?
sjayana at yahoo.com
Thu Mar 24 14:26:39 CDT 2016
The answer is provided in the Gaudapadiya Karika 1.9: http://www.celextel.org/upanishads/atharva_veda/mandukya.html "Some others hold that creation is for the enjoyment (of God), yet others say that it is for His sport. But it is the very nature of the resplendent Being, (for) what desire can he have whose desire is all fulfilled?"
From: Shashwata Shastri via Advaita-l <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>
To: advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org
Sent: Tuesday, March 22, 2016 3:18 PM
Subject: [Advaita-l] Why was the illusory universe generated at the first place?
What is this Maya? Where does it come from? Why was Avidya there at the
first place? Brahman is the one and absolute. My question is, why this
spark of imperfection in the perfect? Without Brahman there can be no
existence of Maya itself. But what is the relation between Maya and
Brahman? It is not like the Brahman, it is not even same as Brahman, it
can not exist without Brahman, it is not something which can be identified
as the opposite of Brahman either. But we need to admit that it did
generate from Brahman. If it is from Brahman then why it was there on the
first place (Again same question)? Why depended existence of ignorance in
absolute and pure Brahman?
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