[Advaita-l] Why was the illusory universe generated at the first place?

Aurobind Padiyath aurobind.padiyath at gmail.com
Tue Mar 22 19:53:10 CDT 2016

The first error that needs correction is that Maya is a vastu. The rest of
the questions will be nonexistent if you understand this.
It is compared to darkness to light as an example.
Now look at your questions in this scenario. You will get all answers.

On 23 Mar 2016 03:48, "Shashwata Shastri via Advaita-l" <
advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:

> What is this Maya? Where does it come from? Why was Avidya there at the
> first place? Brahman is the one and absolute. My question is, why this
> spark of imperfection in the perfect? Without Brahman there can be no
> existence of Maya itself. But what is the relation between Maya and
> Brahman? It is not like the Brahman, it is not even same as Brahman, it
> can not exist without Brahman, it is not something which can be identified
> as the opposite of Brahman either. But we need to admit that it did
> generate from Brahman. If it is from Brahman then why it was there on the
> first place (Again same question)? Why depended existence of ignorance in
> absolute and pure Brahman?
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