[Advaita-l] Fwd: "time" as defined in Vedanta pariBAsha.

Praveen R. Bhat bhatpraveen at gmail.com
Tue Dec 27 09:57:00 CST 2016

Namaste Chandramouliji

Thanks for the interesting extracts from Prof. Hiryanna's article.

On Tue, Dec 27, 2016 at 7:35 PM, H S Chandramouli <hschandramouli at gmail.com>
> Be that as it may,  sushupti is considered to be the best illustration
> for pralaya from several viewpoints. One is as to how or when  one
> wakesup to jAgrat from sushupti. There is no conception of time in
> sushupti. It is mentioned in Kaivalyopanishad that the jiva wakesup from
> sushupti when he is due to experience the fruits of his actions (vyashti
> karmaphala). Same is the case with Creation after pralaya. Creation “
> appears”  when collectively all the jivas are due to experience the
> fruits of their actions (samashti karmaphalas).

True, this was another thing I was going to mention; however, the usage of
the word "when" cannot be avoided even in relation to karmaphala being ripe
for experience for shRShTi to start whether from pralaya or nityapralaya.
"When" indicates time whether we like it or not, which itself can be
pravAhanitya. That is why the inference of time being existent. Subbuji
also confirmed that parakAla is not destroyed during pralaya. This is what
is referred to in Suta Samhita since it is a sambandha between Shiva and
Maya, which will be there as long as Maya is there.

Finally, as you too agree, as long as it doesn't contradict the
mUlasiddhAnta, it quite doesn't matter because finally everything other
than brahman, whether perceived or inferred, is mithyA. We give it a place
to explain things, so that we can move across a logical hurdle as well.

Kind rgds,
--Praveen R. Bhat
/* Through what should one know That owing to which all this is known!
[Br.Up. 4.5.15] */

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