[Advaita-l] Rudra Prashna question

Bhaskar YR via Advaita-l advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org
Mon May 5 22:58:45 CDT 2014

The most straightforward explanation is that a single "original" mantra
underwent change over time.

praNAms Sri Ajit Krishna prabhuji
Hare Krishna

>From the above it seems that to the extent what we are reciting today as 
vEda maNtra with swara might have undergone 'change' over a period of time 
due to one or the other reason and to track back the 'original' maNtra 
with svara-s 'as it was' in 'original' apaurusheya veda would be a tedious 
task.  I myself seen some Ritviks chanting some Rigveda  maNtra-s with 
yajurveda svara-s in yajurveda prayOga and vice versa.  And unfortunately, 
within the same shAkhA, within the same tradition there exists 'svara 
bheda' (some svarita svara-s will be chanted in 'deergha-svarita form in 
ritvedeeya saMhita maNtra-s )  in the name of pAtha bheda. 

Hari Hari Hari Bol!!

PS:: BTW, you were planning to write a series on apasthambha agnimukha 
prayOga in shrouta group, what happened to that prabhuji?? 

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