[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"
bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com
Wed Jan 23 00:32:21 CST 2013
Kindly refer to Lord Krishna's statement (15.15b) in the Bhagavad Gita. He
differentiated that and so did Sayana too. Vedas are Apara vidya and the
Upanishads are Para vidya. You are surely aware of the terms Purva-mimansa
and Uttara-mimansa. That may also help you. Bhagavad Gita, as Upanishad,
teaches us Para-vidya, though it also talks about Apara-vidya.
praNAms Sri Sunil prabhuji
Yes, I am aware of the karma kAnda & jnAna kAnda divisions in veda-s, but
this division has been done for our own understanding of the tattva behind
the veda-s. But IMO, it does not mean these (veda and vedAnta) are two
different set of texts altogether since veda-s include saMhita, brAhmaNa,
AraNyka & upanishads. So, when it comes to aparusheyatva issue, we have
to treat this veda as a whole without categorizing the veda & vedAnta
differently. Hence, with regard to 'apaurusheyatva' whatever stance
applicable to veda-s should equally be applicable to vedAnta-s also
without any deviation. But I think you seem to be saying here that
'aparusheyatva' status should be treated differently in veda & vadAnta.
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
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