[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"
svidyasankar at hotmail.com
Tue Jan 22 10:29:09 CST 2013
> > What vedAnta is telling cannot be arrived at by anyone by any reasoning
> whatsoever unless it is pointed out by someone else. However in that case
> the natural question arises how did the first person arrive at this
> intuition. The only plausible answer is that it was revealed to him. It is
> only in this sense that Shruti is apaurusheya. All other finer arguments
> are for setting up a consistent philosophical system but IMHO they are not
> needed for moksha shAstra.
Yes, that is indeed the case, with respect to the arguments for setting up a consistent
philosophical system. The whole issue is peripheral to moksha sAdhana per se. It
becomes important for other concerns that may be central to some people, but only
preparatory to moksha sAdhana for others.
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