[Advaita-l] Apaurusheyatva of Vedas.

श्रीमल्ललितालालितः lalitaalaalitah at gmail.com
Sat Sep 10 00:34:18 CDT 2011

*श्रीमल्ललितालालितः <http://www.lalitaalaalitah.com>
lalitAlAlitaH <http://about.me/lalitaalaalitah/bio>*

On Sat, Sep 10, 2011 at 00:17, Omkar Deshpande <omkar_deshpande at yahoo.com>wrote:

> Even if we call the third option I mentioned (where shabda and anumAna
> derive their validity from pratyakSha) by the name of parataH-prAmANya, I
> don't know why svataH-prAmANya is preferable to it, especially given that
> there is no infinite regress now. How would you argue that?

 I don't know basis of your statement. I'll need exact words from bhAShyam
of vyAsa or any other AchArya on yoga-sUtram to confirm it.

Anyway, I've asked some specialist and he said that 'pratyaxa is independent
and others depend on it' - is said yogin-s and nothing else. It doesn't mean
prAmANya too depends on pratyaxam.

What I know is :
sA~NkhyavAdin-s say that prAmANyam and aprAmANyam both are innate.
naiyAyika-s say both are regulated by other.
bauddha-s say aprAmANyam is innate and prAmANyam needs others.
mImAMsaka-s say opposite.

Anyway, I'm replying your question(by asking some questions).
Why pratyaxa is svataH-pramANa and others not ?

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