[Advaita-l] apaurusheyatva of veda-s
shyam_md at yahoo.com
Sat Aug 20 07:04:46 CDT 2011
Pranams Raghavji and others.
> From: Raghav Kumar <raghavkumar00 at gmail.com>
> Subject: Re: [Advaita-l] apaurusheyatva of veda-s
"if a fundamentalist muslim or christian were to claim similar infallible
apaurusheya status for their respective scriptures, we should be able to
logically show a fallacy in such claims without invoking the need for
"faith" and "belief"
My question is "why?"
Is logic both sufficient or necessary to legitamize shraddhA, when the latter relates to a realm that is beyond the range of ordinary human experience and investigation??
Is there something inherently incorrect or incongruent, about the shraddhA itself of a devout Sufi's "Islamic" Shraddha" - that we need to differentiate "Vedic" ShraddhA from?
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