[Advaita-l] Veda-s & its apaurusheyatva

Bhaskar YR bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com
Tue Sep 1 06:14:18 CDT 2009

Hare Krishna

One of my cybernet friends, expressed his observation on vedas' 
aparusheyatva.  I'd like to get the clarification on this from the learned 
prabhuji-s of this forum.  Here is his observation : 

// quote //
What puzzled me was that the veda also had intimate knowledge of the 
names,culture,topography etc of a very small place in the universe called 
bhArata-varsha. This was proof to me that veda was "authored" by Indians! 
Had it been unauthored and eternal, it will likely not show affinity 
towards India will it? Why do you think veda has no names like John and 
Peter? Why do you think it makes no reference to places such as Europe and 
Africa? Why do you think it talks of ganga and sarasvati and not of Nile 
or Amazon which are even bigger rivers? The proper nouns in the veda are 
specific to our culture and it is the proof that it is not eternal and 
unauthored. Veda as knowledge is eternal but as a text it appears to be a 
divinely inspired content in accordance with place and time in which it 
was revealed. If veda were to be revealed in another galaxy in another 
planet how will they make sense of the names
in it? Obviously, if the veda is revealed there, its spiritual content 
will be the same, but not the textual content.
// unquote //
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
PS : I've taken his concurrence to cross post his mail to other forum & 
I've marked a copy of this mail to him also. 

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