[Advaita-l] creation ex nihilo
sjayana at yahoo.com
Tue May 8 20:25:39 CDT 2007
Dear Narayana Murthy,
--- NARAYANA MURTHY <malahanikareswara at yahoo.co.in> wrote:
> > Namaste
> > Let me illustrate this. Suppose you buy your first DVD recorder
> > you
> > find yourself not knowing how to operate it. What would you
> > attribute
> > the ignorance to? Would it be something in your head that
> > you
> > from knowing how to operate it or is it the absence of the
> > 'operating
> > knowledge' of the DVD Recorder? The ABSENCE of the 'operating
> > knowledge'
> > caused an EXISTENT effect of not knowing what buttons to press.
> In case you are unaware of what Causation is:
> CAUSATION MUST INVOLVE CHANGE.
> In your above example, what is the CHANGE involved? Let us see:
> Ignorance (Absence of Knowledge) -> Ignorance (Absence of
> Note that there is NO CHANGE INVOLVED IN YOUR EXAMPLE. HENCE THERE
> NO CAUSATION.
> Again, note that Anand's example is different from yours,
> because he took into account Ignorance as not merely Absence of
> Knowledge, but PRESENCE OF ERRONEOUS COGNITION. In other words,
> Ignorance can come in two forms:
> Ignorance = Absence of Knowledge (CANNOT BE A CAUSE)
> Ignorance = Presence of Erroneous Cognition (CAN BE A CAUSE)
> It is the second kind of Ignorance that can be considered a CAUSE
> Perception of the World.
> Dear kartik
> pranam. Although shri Anand addressed the issue from a different
> perspective, the issue of a non existent cause resulting in an
> existent effect was not addressed in that reply. The event -a real
> life experience -could not be termed a fallacy. It remained a
> riddle and your above reply was helpful to break the same.
> The error then is in the analogy. The error is in connecting two
> events under cause effect relationship which requires a change
> which was not there in the analogy.
> In this connection, I have another doubt.
> on occurence of two events - where the occurence of first event
> results in the occurence of the second event, could the first event
> be called as anything other than cause? - say a *pretext*
It can be -- provided the effect is ALSO a "pretext"!
I plan to soon write a short article about avidyA and causation,
where I hope to cover the above question.
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