[Advaita-l] Apourusheyatva

S Jayanarayanan sjayana at yahoo.com
Mon Jan 31 11:20:21 CST 2005

I think That would be correct.

In pUrva mImAmsA, the Vedas are NOT "sounds" at all (strictly
speaking). The "sounds" or "chants" of the Vedas are the "manifestive
agency" of the Vedas -- they are the means by which humans perceive the
existence of the Vedas.

An analogy may be given: "2" is not a number at all, but is merely the
symbolic representation of a certain number. The Romans used the symbol
"II" and a computer that uses binary arithmetic represents it as "10".
But they all refer to the *same number*, the existence of which is
perceived by the symbolic representation. Similarly, the Vedic chants
reveal the Vedas, but are not the Vedas per se. The Vedas don't exist
in this physical realm, and the Vedic chants are the "physical" means
by which the Vedas are perceived.


--- abhishek rk <smartie_625 at yahoo.com> wrote:

> Namaste ShrI Karthik,
> Would this be correct: Brahman revealed the Vedas to
> the Rshis acting as their (immanent) Guru?
> Dhanyavadah
> Abhishek
> P.S. Sorry, I had sent this same post this under a
> different subject.
> ------------------------------------------------------
> It should be taken to mean that the Vedas came from
> the supreme
> Brahman, not that it was created by That. Just as
> these words that I'm
> typing have come from me, and not that they were
> created by me.
> Vide Shankara's commentary on GItA verse 15.15: "I am
> also the
> vedanta-krt, the originator of the Vedanta, i.e., the
> source of the
> traditional school of the teachings of Vedanta"
> -Kartik
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