[Advaita-l] Re: gauDapAda kArikA-s
kalyan_kc at hotmail.com
Fri May 23 19:14:27 CDT 2003
>However, think about the following. The jIva, being brahman, is also a kind
>of sa-guNa brahman (the guNa-s differ), and according to your own thinking,
>the jIva is deluded.
This type of thinking is rejected in the brahmasUtras. I have already given
you the relevant brahmasUtras to show this. It was also stated that
commonsense is inapplicable to brahman. The scripture is the source of right
Note that you wont say that jIva is brahman in the other three states. jIva
brahma unity is valid only in liberation. bheda sruti prevails for the
>Well, asampradAyavit sarva-SAstravid api mUrkhavad upekShaNIyaH -
>How do you arrive at the true meaning of vedAnta independent of all else?
Vedanta is very specific that brahman is undeluded. For interpreting vedanta
correctly, we have the brahmasUtras and we have already seen what they say.
>If so, I don't understand why you have to have a problem with gauDapAda
The problem is this - *sammohitah svayam*
>Who decided that gauDapAda (or for that matter, Sankara or sureSvara) gives
>un-vedAntic posulates? It seems to me that this is completely a
>misunderstanding of what he says.
In what way is this a mis-understanding? I have asked this many times. Where
in vedanta do you get the idea that brahman is deluded? If it is accepted
that vedanta states very clearly that brahman is undeluded, then any
postulate on the contrary is automatically unvedantic. If you maintain that
brahman is deluded, then what is the guarentee that the BG is not avidya?
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