Bhagavad kr^pa (grace of God)

[Gummuluru Murthy]

Namaste.

It takes a bit more time for me to digest what Shri Sadananda has written.
In the meanwhile, I would like to pose this question.

On Thu, 15 Jan 1998, sadananda wrote:

>
> [...]
>
> creator-creating and created in Brahman.  But when Jeeva identifies that I
> am jeeva, the ignorance is already there - then automatically the Jagat and
  ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
> the Creator also enter.
>
> Of course, the major, apparently valid, question that  Ramaanuja raises is
> the locus of this avidya. Who is ignorant is the question?.  Brahman as
> Iswara cannot be ignorant.  Jeeva himself is the product of ignorance.  If
> we say Jeeva has the ignorance, then we fall into the trap of accepting
> that Jeeva was there before ignorance started, since he has the ignorance.
> Even if the ignorance is eliminated, Jeeva will still be left behind.  Then
  ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
> there is no more equation between Jeeva and Brahman.  Advaita explains this
> by saying that (1) avidya is anaadi - beginning less but has an end when
> knowledge takes place and (2) it is unexplainable, anirvachaneeyam.  -
> VishisTaadvaitins feel that this is not an explanation but a cope out.
>
> [...]

> Explanation appears to be O.K at a superficial level. But the problme is.
> Lord becomes a tyrant in the sky who blesses those who pray to him or put
> them in the delusion of his maaya, otherwise.  Since Lord cannot be like
> that, and since He is the very embodiment of compassion, with Lord's grace
> equal for everyone, the only explanation why the jeevas get caught up with
> sense objects is due to their own delusion.  Now the question comes?  When
> did this delusion started?  Since Jeevas are eternal and Brahman as Iswara
> is eternal and Jagat is also eternal, when and why the Jeevas got their
> delusion started - It becomes similar to their own question, when did the
> ignorance started? -


I would like to think this way. Wherever there is a jeeva, there is
avidya. Wherever there is avidya, there is jeeva. Without jeeva, there is
no avidya; and without avidya, there is no jeeva. Thus, avidya and jeeva
are synonymous.

Avidya and jeeva have the same beginning and the same end (if jeeva and
avidya have beginning at all). Advaita literature says avidya is anAdi,
without beginning. Would the same thing not apply for a jeeva also ?
Further, is not "Adi", the beginning, a concept associated with avidya
also ?

I would be grateful for clarification.

>
> Hari Om!
> Sadananda
>
>

Regards
Gummuluru Murthy
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... aham bhAvodayAbhAvo bodhasya paramAvadhih ...
                        Shri Shankara in Viveka ChuDAmaNi (verse 424)

The end of the rise of the sense of "I" of the ego is the culmination
of knowledge.
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