marting at NSWCC.ORG.AU
Fri Oct 3 03:29:32 CDT 1997
At 11:35 AM 2/10/97 -0700, >Vidyasankar wrote:
>Moreover, if you have already decided that the vedas are full of mistakes,
>fine. No amount of pointing out otherwise will change this opinion.
>However, I would like to ask you this. Since when were the vedas on the
Since people claimed their infallibility.
>As for the infallibility of the vedas, when a Hindu says this about the
>vedas, he means something very different from what a Jew or a Christian or
>a Muslim says about his own scripture. I don't care if I sound
>"fundamentalist". Go to a good university and get a course in religious
>studies, to really understand how we treat the vedas.
I am not interested in how you treat the Vedas. I am concerned about the use
of the word infallible.
Concise Oxford Dictionary.... Infallible = "Incapable of erring, unfailing."
As an aside I noticed at the beginning of the same page of the Concise
Oxford Dictionary (1964) the first word was ineffable = "Unautterable, too
great for words. " That's what I'm interested in!
(What a remarkable co-incidence! The first word on the page was ineffable
and the last word on the page was infallible!)
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