[Advaita-l] 'iti' in the vAcArambhaNa shruti
agnimile at gmail.com
Thu Feb 15 10:00:48 EST 2018
None taken. In my view, absolutely so. vikAro nAmadheyam, kAraNam ityeva
satyam corresponds to the second definition of mithyAtva.
On 15 Feb 2018 14:49, "H S Chandramouli" <hschandramouli at gmail.com> wrote:
> Reg << I am unable to understand why 6-4 is more difficult to establish
> mithyAtva, or how this is more akin to milk-curds analogy. The use of 'iti'
> to say that the effect is real only as the cause is true in both places in
> my opinion.>>,
> I absolutely agree with the second sentence. But at this stage I need a
> clarification before I answer the other question. Is it your contention
> that this represents mithyatva? No offence meant. Just a straightforward
> doubt. In my view, it does not.
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