[Advaita-l] What is the difference between Maya and avidhya ?T
ravikiranm108 at gmail.com
Sun Sep 25 01:00:11 CDT 2016
On Sun, Sep 25, 2016 at 9:58 AM, Praveen R. Bhat <bhatpraveen at gmail.com>
> As per one line of thought, there is no need to posit avidyA (locus) in
>> nirguna nirvisesha Brahman (though Brahman is opposed to Nothing, as seen
>> in creation), as avidyA/mAya is upAdhi Ashrita, but never in para brahman,
> The question then would be: can the upAdhi be sentient? If not, it cannot
> be the locus for avidyA, as mentioned y'day to be debated by
> Sureshvaracharya in NS. If sentient, it is non-different from brahman.
Yes, ananyatvam is verily accepted, but nirupAdhika Brahman (which is
completely free or devoid of any trace of avidyA (or upAdhi), is certainly
posited. Before creation, is one such instance, where there is no trace of
The very creation Its anIrvachanIya power ?
Through sadyO mukti (mahA vAkya janita BrahmAtmaikatva jnAna), one verily
is That (paramArtham).
I am sure, both schools have their well proven yukti's and wont necessarily
converge no matter what :) Those who have more details on both lines of
thought, can share such details for benefit of reading/understanding.
But, when it comes to mahA vAkya janita paramArtha jnAna destroying avidyA
completely, there are no 2 opinions among Advaitis :)
> Thats why I mentioned as below, that its just an indirection from brahman,
> but still brahman.
>> On Sat, Sep 24, 2016 at 7:47 PM, Praveen R. Bhat via Advaita-l <
>> advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:
>>> That mithyA sentient entity will have its locus in brahman any way. It
>>> be just an indirection.
> --Praveen R. Bhat
> /* Through what should one know That owing to which all this is known!
> [Br.Up. 4.5.15] */
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