[Advaita-l] What is the difference between Maya and avidhya ?T

[Bhaskar YR]

praNAms
Hare Krishna
As per the clarification from VenkatraghavanJi, mUlAvidyA is seen as jnAna virOdhi and hence destroyed with Atma jnAna uttpatti ..

Ø   Yes, this is what I too said, since mUlAvidyA is jnana virOdhi like other avidyA lakshaNa-s, it would go after tattva jnana.

So, it cannot linger anymore as bhavarUpain Brahman after jnAna prApti.


Ø     Yes, that would be the ideal case.  But as long as jnAni is embodied he will be having avidyA lesha though he is Jeevan mukta only after videha mukti he would attain atyantika Atmaikatva jnana.


which is present even in sushupti (not as jnAnAbhAva) and it is NOT an antaHkaraNa dOsha-s like jnAnAbhAva, saMshaya and anyathAgrahaNa.  It is avidyA beeja Shakti which is existed in brahman.

It means, this mUlAvidya is bhavarUpa (anirvachanIyA) in Brahman, though Brahman is ekam eva advitIyam.
Yes, that is what they will say to drive home the point that for the srushta this ‘avidyA’ is the preraka Shakti in brahman.

Pure Existence ( sad eva) also means possible presence of  bhavarUpa mUlAvidya?  If it is accepted as a padArtha, it cannot be a jnAna virOdhi as jnAna is vastu tantra alone..



Ø     Perhaps you might not aware of this vyAkhyAna.  But let me stop here prabhuji.  This topic had come for some vigorous/bitter discussion earlier in this group and due to which I had lost satsangha of somany good prabhuji-s.  Hence donot want to re-kindle this issue with a fresh debate.

 Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
bhaskar