[Advaita-l] avidya vs maayaa - What is the difference?
kuntimaddisada at yahoo.com
Fri Dec 2 08:14:07 CST 2016
Agreed - although I did not imply the purvapakshas are all right - since sidhantas are there to refute the purvapaksha - My question and proposition pertains to the equation is not necessary to account jeeva-jagat-Iswara triad transcending to aatma-anaatma binary.
I am equally concerned to present Vedanta to a rational intellect as logically possible - since I am currently doing the series on Self-Realization and all these aspects become important for a rational intellect to give up the rationality!
From: V Subrahmanian via Advaita-l <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>
To: Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com>; A discussion group for Advaita Vedanta <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>
Sent: Friday, December 2, 2016 6:05 PM
Subject: Re: [Advaita-l] avidya vs maayaa - What is the difference?
On Fri, Dec 2, 2016 at 5:57 PM, Bhaskar YR via Advaita-l <
advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:
> However, I must say first that my arguments are not against Vedanta
> shaastras. Second, the proposition is only that by equating both avidya
> and maaya as the same, we are unnecessarily complicating the doctrine by
> that equation as evidenced by many purvapakshas.
Dear Sada ji,
Just because purvapakshas are raised, can we conclude that the Vedanta
doctrine as presented by Shankara and his followers is flawed? Also, we
cannot take it for granted that those who raise purvapakshas have
understood vedanta/Shankara correctly. We have evidence in the shruti, for
example, the shukarahasyopanishad cited by Ventak ji, and Shankara's own
Gita bhashya and Mandukya karika bhashya quoted by me recently where for
both avidya and maya Shankara is giving the same lakshana-s.
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