[Advaita-l] Rudra Prashna question
Bhaskar YR via Advaita-l
advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org
Mon May 5 22:58:45 CDT 2014
The most straightforward explanation is that a single "original" mantra
underwent change over time.
praNAms Sri Ajit Krishna prabhuji
>From the above it seems that to the extent what we are reciting today as
vEda maNtra with swara might have undergone 'change' over a period of time
due to one or the other reason and to track back the 'original' maNtra
with svara-s 'as it was' in 'original' apaurusheya veda would be a tedious
task. I myself seen some Ritviks chanting some Rigveda maNtra-s with
yajurveda svara-s in yajurveda prayOga and vice versa. And unfortunately,
within the same shAkhA, within the same tradition there exists 'svara
bheda' (some svarita svara-s will be chanted in 'deergha-svarita form in
ritvedeeya saMhita maNtra-s ) in the name of pAtha bheda.
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!
PS:: BTW, you were planning to write a series on apasthambha agnimukha
prayOga in shrouta group, what happened to that prabhuji??
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