[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"
sunil_bhattacharjya at yahoo.com
Fri Jan 25 12:35:16 CST 2013
You are good tArkik and there is no doubt. Will you not like to say a word on "kutarka" and "sutarka" ? Is it decided only on the quality of the tarka or on the spirit of the tarka as well ?
Secondly if the apaurusheyatva has been seen under the yogic state, will be possible to utilise common logic to decide on the apaurusheyatva ?
From: Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com>
To: A discussion group for Advaita Vedanta <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>
Sent: Friday, January 25, 2013 3:00 AM
Subject: Re: [Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"
I look at the issue this way: If it is 'mere' logic then there is no
about the danger of its being unsettled by stronger logic. But the case
have is tarka that is shruti anugRhIta. Such a tarka that has been coming
down to us has not been uprooted or unsettled.
> Again prabhuji you are missing the point here. Shankara calls for
shrutyanugraheeta tarka for the brahma jignAsa during the mananaM process.
He is not saying you can use shruti accepted logic to prove shruti's
apaurusheyatva status itself. Here I would like to reiterate that in this
context, the question we have is on shruti & its apaurusheyatva itself, so
we cannot take 'shruti'as primary source and continue the tarka with
shruti anugraheeta statements to prove sruti's status as apaurusheya or
otherwise. If we resort to this type of tarka, then it is as good as
arguing the case in favour of accused based on ONLY his 'anugraheeta'
statements :-)) I hope you would agree that it is not tenable.
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
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