[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"
bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com
Tue Jan 22 22:51:58 CST 2013
>From the Vedic angle one has to accept the apaurusheyatva only as a
hypothesis and this hypothesis cannot be challenged. However from the
Vedantic angle the situation is different.
praNAms Sri Sunil prabhuji
Kindly pardon me, I am not able to get it properly !! It seems to me you
are differentiating veda-s from vedAnta, but traditionally vedAnta
(upanishads) forms the part of veda-s only and it is not a separate set of
texts, hence it is called vedAnta. Could you please elaborate the
difference between veda and vedAnta here while taking the stance on
apaurusheyatva of these texts.
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!
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