[Advaita-l] A 'vichAra' on the terms ?avidyA? and ?mAyA? - Part 2

kman krismanian at gmail.com
Fri Apr 30 11:15:42 CDT 2010

 V Subrahmanian ji, I am a beginner so please bear with me.
I have a question about Maya and avidya.

When an Apple falls down from a tree, I do not know why it falls down.
My avidya is cleared after studying Newton's law and understanding gravity
is the reason.
So can I call Gravity is same as avidya?

>*9. It could be contended that ?since names and forms are called mAyA by
>shruti and alluded so by Shankara, names and forms themselves could be
>treated  as mAyA and in that way why can?t we hold mAyA to be a figment of
>avidyA??  The reply to this is:  By this same logic, what is wrong in
t>reating mAyA as non-different from avidyA since as per the above
>?mAyA is a figment of avidyA??  After all, Shankara has strongly held that
>the effect, kAryam, is non-different from its cause, kAraNam.  That way
>is non-different from avidyA indeed.  *


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