[Advaita-l] Veda-s & its apaurusheyatva
bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com
Tue Sep 1 06:14:18 CDT 2009
One of my cybernet friends, expressed his observation on vedas'
aparusheyatva. I'd like to get the clarification on this from the learned
prabhuji-s of this forum. Here is his observation :
// quote //
What puzzled me was that the veda also had intimate knowledge of the
names,culture,topography etc of a very small place in the universe called
bhArata-varsha. This was proof to me that veda was "authored" by Indians!
Had it been unauthored and eternal, it will likely not show affinity
towards India will it? Why do you think veda has no names like John and
Peter? Why do you think it makes no reference to places such as Europe and
Africa? Why do you think it talks of ganga and sarasvati and not of Nile
or Amazon which are even bigger rivers? The proper nouns in the veda are
specific to our culture and it is the proof that it is not eternal and
unauthored. Veda as knowledge is eternal but as a text it appears to be a
divinely inspired content in accordance with place and time in which it
was revealed. If veda were to be revealed in another galaxy in another
planet how will they make sense of the names
in it? Obviously, if the veda is revealed there, its spiritual content
will be the same, but not the textual content.
// unquote //
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
PS : I've taken his concurrence to cross post his mail to other forum &
I've marked a copy of this mail to him also.
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