[Advaita-l] (no subject)
brahmasatyam at gmail.com
Mon Jun 16 02:41:50 CDT 2008
Would it be right to say that Sankara used Patanjala Yoga terms in his
bhasya? Both Yoga Darsana and Uttara Mimamsa (Vedanta) derive their
authority from the Vedas. Hence being so, wouldn't it be better to say
that both Vedanta and Yoga Darsana may have used similar terminologies
but may have interpreted them quite differently. Hence I may be
careful to say that Sankara used Patanjali Yoga terms explicitly. Or
it would be better to say that both Patanjali and Sankara belong to
same Vedic tradition and therefore they used certain common terms.
But that may not mean that they interpreted the words in the same
manner and talked about the same philosophy. However, having said so,
the Advaitin may be at ease with Patanjali Yoga terms and interpret it
to fit into Vedanta.
Just my 1.99 cents.
On Sat, Jun 14, 2008 at 12:18 AM, Sundaresan, Vidyasankar (GE Infra,
Water) <vidyasankar.sundaresan at ge.com> wrote:
> Re: my comment on the usage of samAdhi in brahmasUtra 2.3.39
>>I am not able to understand the line of your
>>argument here..it is as good as asking why
>>krishna used the word *sAnkhya* instead
>>of jnAna in gIta when sAnkhya (as a system)
>>has a long history..
> Ah, read the bhAshya on gItA 18.19. If you keep an open mind, you
> will understand why bhagavAn uses sAMkhya and how Sankara
> bhagavatpAda views such usage. Apply a samAna-nyAya to yoga
> system too.
> guNasaMkhyAna-SAstraM guNa-bhoktR-vishaye pramANam eva |
> paramArtha brahmaikatva-vishaye yadyapi virudhyate, tathApi te hi
> kApilAH guNa-gauNa-vyApAra-nirUpaNe 'bhiyuktAH iti tac-chAstram
> api vakshyamANArtha-stuty-arthatvena upAdIyata iti na virodhaH |
> As for the rest of the discussion, suffice it to say that the bhAshya
> on the kartR-adhikaraNa and the taksha adhikaraNa (2.3.33-39,40)
> needs to be studied carefully. You cannot argue that sUtra 2.3.39
> has nothing to do with samAdhi experiences and also argue that
> yogic samAdhi experiences are kartR-tantra. It is because samAdhi
> and dhyAna are kartR-tantra that SAstra can instruct about it. THAT
> is the thrust of the sUtra and bhAshya here. That the kartRtva itself
> is superimposed and not an inherent property of the jIva is something
> that has to be realized by the jIva through the vedAntic teaching.
> I have also pointed out to you that Sankara bhagavatpAda himself
> uses word "yoga" and cites "Srotavyo, mantavyo, nididhyAsitavyaH"
> under sUtra 2.1.3. You cannot say this is like using sAMkhya for
> jnAna, because the sUtra and bhAshya there are a refutation of
> dualistic yoga. Yet, the bhAshyakAra specifically quotes the
> upanishat sentence about SravaNa, manana and nididhyAsana here.
> Without further prolonging this discussion needlessly, what I am
> saying is this. Whenever a post-Sankaran author/teacher writes
> or speaks using the words yoga, samAdhi, dhyAna etc. you and
> some others are quick to talk of "unjustified influence of PY". Yet
> whenever I point out to you that Sankara bhagavatpAda himself
> does not hesitate to refer to and use pAtanjala yoga wherever
> appropriate, you wish to construct a different interpretation on it.
> I am not here to defend "dualistic PY" but I do wish to point out
> that an almost allergic reaction that is exhibited to usage of yoga
> based terminology and concepts, especially from post-Sankaran
> authors/teachers is unwarranted. In an attempt to understand the
> bhAshya-s in themselves, the criticisms heaped upon the later
> vyAkhyAna-kAra-s is highly misplaced. So also with the criticisms
> heaped upon advaitin teachers who do not subscribe to your views
> about the later vyAkhyAna-kAra-s. They are also highly misplaced.
> ps. The term nirvikalpa samAdhi keeps recurring in your posts. Note
> that the texts of PY do not use this term at all. So much for seeing
> "unjustified" influence of pAtanjala yoga in post-Sankaran advaitins.
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