[Advaita-l] On Bhakti Yoga
sgadkari2001 at yahoo.com
Sat Feb 9 20:49:10 CST 2008
Simple answer to your question is Lord is
certainly partial to bhaktas. See the very
next line of the shloka you are refering to:
yE bhajantitu mAm bhaktyA mayi tE tEShu cApyahaM||
However I am sure that this is not a satisfying
answer. In fact the main problem lies with the
text of Gita itself. When Shri Krishna uses the
phrase "I am so and so", the reference point "I"
is not specified, also it is not clear if this
reference point is uniform across whole Gita,
if it varies from chapter to chapter, or varies
also within a chapter. May be Maharshi Vyasa has
done this on purpose ....
For each devotee, the appropriate meaning of Gita
probably would manifest itself when sufficient
sincere efforts are put in.
> Krishna says in Ch.9-29:
> samoham sarva bhUtEShu na mE dvEShyOsti na priyaH|
> yE bhajantitu mAm bhaktyA mayi tE tEShu cApyahaM||
> I maintain equanimity to all I do not favor
anybody or disfavor anybody.
Does the above mean that, the Lord makes no difference
at all between a
bhakta and someone who is not ? The various tales
wherein, the Lord acts as
a saviour for the bhakta(s) confuse me...
Kindly pardon my ignorance and correct me wherever
Many thanks in advance.
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