panchap at ICSL.UCLA.EDU
Tue Jun 1 21:30:18 CDT 1999
I don't know whether this issue has been already discussed on the list
but I have a doubt.
Is a person who has realized the self is supposed to be equivalent
to God? I think the Bhagavad Gita and also some upanishads say that One
who has known Brahman is Brahman himself, right? Does self-realization
imply omniscience? ISvara is supposed to be omniscient. Sankaracharya says
somewhere in his BG bhAshya that the lord vishNu is omniscient,
In the Teachings of Ramana Maharshi, it is said that when Ramana
Maharshi is asked whether he was teaching Sankara's advaita, he says that
he realized the self, and he was just describing his own "experience".
Others told him that his teaching was essentially the same as Adi
This implies that Ramana Maharshi, after realization, was still
not omniscient because someone else had to tell him that his teaching was
the same as Sankara's. Or is omniscience not a property of a self-realized
What is the difference between a self-realized person and God/Brahman?
(just a comparison - I think both the Buddha and the Mahavira are said to
be omniscient, omnipotent, etc. by their followers.)
More information about the Advaita-l mailing list